I agree with the point that there is no specifically feminine language used by the Bible authors to describe Jesus. Which begs the question, in my mind at least, “So?”
Not that the issue presented or question raised is irrelevant, it is a very astute point that Damian makes. I did note in a comment on Damian’s blog that the vast majority of the names are gender neutral, those beginning with “Son,” “King,” and containing words like “Husband” being the obvious exceptions. Nor do I think God is losing any sleep over this issue. I did also mention in my comment that I think the whole gender-as-point-of-dispute issue is an entirely human construct, and one that can readily be resolved by following the simple command to love your neighbor (equally).
However, I just can’t quite figure out why the authors of the Bible would use feminine-specific gender language to describe a historical figure who was male.
Thoughts? Comments? Ideas?